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Imagine a financial advisor convincing you to buy an investment.
You do so, based on fancy charts and promises.
But they fail to tell you that by selling after a couple of years, the firm could abscond 80% of what you invested.
Should that be legal? Of course not.
It should be disclosed to the investor before they sign the contract–and in the clearest possible language.
But it rarely is. In South East Asia, such miss-selling occurs with frightening regularity.
I signed a petition to help fight such lack of disclosure. Can you as well?
Thanks, Andrew